+hloberg Posted March 8, 2023 Author Share Posted March 8, 2023 FYI, this formula [DIST=((ABS(X1-X2)^2)+(ABS(Y1-Y2)^2))] matches CALL DISTANCE exactly. here's a program from the TI99 that test the formula and compares with CALL DISTANCE. 90 CALL CLEAR 100 CALL SPRITE(#1,65,2,50,50,1,1) 105 CALL SPRITE(#2,75,2,60,60,_1,-1) 110 CALL DISTANCE(#1,#2,R) 120 CALL POSITION(#1,Y1,X1) 122 CALL POSITION(#2,Y2,X2) 127 D=((ABS(X1-X2)^2)+(ABS(Y1-Y2)^2)) 130 DISPLAY AT(24,1):R 135 DISPLAY AT(23,1):D 140 GOTO 110 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+Vorticon Posted March 8, 2023 Share Posted March 8, 2023 The ABS function is not necessary since you are squaring the difference. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+OLD CS1 Posted March 9, 2023 Share Posted March 9, 2023 13 minutes ago, Vorticon said: The ABS function is not necessary since you are squaring the difference. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+mizapf Posted March 9, 2023 Share Posted March 9, 2023 Why? - Because in groups, for each element there is exactly one inverse element, so you can easily derive that the inverse of the inverse element is the element itself. The proof is left as an exercise. 1 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+hloberg Posted March 10, 2023 Author Share Posted March 10, 2023 looks like I fixed the two problems that were found. now just test, test, test. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+Vorticon Posted March 10, 2023 Share Posted March 10, 2023 11 hours ago, hloberg said: looks like I fixed the two problems that were found. now just test, test, test. Happy to help with the testing 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+hloberg Posted March 10, 2023 Author Share Posted March 10, 2023 2 hours ago, Vorticon said: Happy to help with the testing i'll PM you. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+hloberg Posted March 10, 2023 Author Share Posted March 10, 2023 On 3/8/2023 at 6:22 PM, mizapf said: Why? - Because in groups, for each element there is exactly one inverse element, so you can easily derive that the inverse of the inverse element is the element itself. The proof is left as an exercise. funny, I was just teaching one of the kids this very thing a couple weeks ago and I totally forgot it. 😜 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+mizapf Posted March 10, 2023 Share Posted March 10, 2023 It's a special fun to show students the proof why there is only one zero in a Boolean Algebra, and why not(not(A)) = A. You should see their faces. Most of them simply cannot imagine that there is something to prove at all. 1 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
+hloberg Posted March 24, 2023 Author Share Posted March 24, 2023 UPDATE: DEBUGGED VERSION C10A AS DOWNLOAD has version for DSK1 and if you have Geneve MAME package download from my site https://ti99resources.wordpress.com/emulation/ you can just replace the SOFTWARE files with the new SOFTWARE files and execute ABGAMES at the Geneve prompt for the menu to run CFA, ------------------------------------------------------------- CFA10a-UPDATED.zip 7 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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